Weird, I learned rhotic was pretty much standard dialect around the time North America was colonized … wouldn’t that mean it’s the other way around in reality? (Honest no rage-bait question). I was taught and repeatedly read over the years that modern British dialect sounded more American then, and only changed with more inter-colonization from surrounding countries?
Weird, I learned rhotic was pretty much standard dialect around the time North America was colonized … wouldn’t that mean it’s the other way around in reality? (Honest no rage-bait question). I was taught and repeatedly read over the years that modern British dialect sounded more American then, and only changed with more inter-colonization from surrounding countries?